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    Indo-European languages: Definition from Answers.com
  • In·do-Ger·man·ic a. [ Indo- + Germanic .] 1. Same as Aryan , and Indo-European ... linguists added other languages to the Indo-European family, and scholars such ...
  • http://www.answers.com/topic/indo-european-languages
Questions/Answers
How did the Indo-Europeanlanguages get to be sodifferent from one another?
From Sanskrit and Lithuanian to Latin and Greek...all these languages supposedly originate from one single mother-language, and indeed share a certain amount of common cognates. But they are utterly unintelligible with one another...Greek won't help you with Russan for example. Any ideas on how the Indo-European families have become so distinct from one another?
The answer is very simple: distance between communities and the pass of time made all this languages find different sounds and signs for different realities. If you notice, Spanish, French, Italian and Rumanian are not that different. But they're difficult to learn because their words were meant to explain realities we never have experienced before. Also, Greek won't help you with Russian because they come from a different root. But don't worry, that's how languages are supposed to be. Just look at Basque. That's a puzzle of a language. Nobody knows where its origins are. Good question!
Can someone please explain tome how exactly "Indo European"languages are tied together?
So I've seen this term and read about it, but I haven't quite understood how Indo European languages are connected, and where they all came from? For example, I don't understand how the Armenian and German language can be in the same family.
Linguists noticed many similarities between Sanskrit(an ancient Indic language) and European languages (for ex. the sanskrit word RAJA is close to the latin word REX which became the italian RE) and this suggested a common historical parentage.So they proposed that many of the classical languages (latin, greek, sanskrit, gothic, celtic, persian) derive from the same source and they called this parent language Indo-European.All we know about Indo-European is based on conjectures, on common aspects found in modern-day languages and on tracing a hypothetical mother tongue called Proto-Indo European(which may never have existed). Two or more languages are in the same family because they have similar linguistic aspects (words, grammatical costructions, fonethics...)
Are finite verbs peculiar toindo-european languages?
I have been studying for a few months and I have noticed that tenses and moods are completely absent from the language. I have also noticed - from the very few information that I have have
No not at all. Chinese is the most extreme example of, and I may be remembering the name wrong, an isolating language, meaning that each morpheme is a separate word. Synthetic languages encode several pieces of information in a particular morpheme (for example "she" means feminine, singular, third-person, subject). Agglutinating languages add morphemes to the main word, each with a meaning. Polysynthetic languages somehow combine features of synthetic and agglutinating languages I think, adding several morphemes that each encompass several meanings to each main word. Most (all?) Indo-European languages are mostly synthetic (English is more isolating than a lot of them, but does have synthetic elements, like "she"). I believe African languages tend to be agglutinating and American (Amerindian) languages are polysynthetic.
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