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How did the Indo-Europeanlanguages get to be sodifferent from one another?
From Sanskrit and Lithuanian to Latin and Greek...all these languages supposedly originate from one single mother-language, and indeed share a certain amount of common cognates. But they are utterly unintelligible with one another...Greek won't help you with Russan for example. Any ideas on how the Indo-European families have become so distinct from one another?
The answer is very simple: distance between communities and the pass of time made all this languages find different sounds and signs for different realities. If you notice, Spanish, French, Italian and Rumanian are not that different. But they're difficult to learn because their words were meant to explain realities we never have experienced before. Also, Greek won't help you with Russian because they come from a different root. But don't worry, that's how languages are supposed to be. Just look at Basque. That's a puzzle of a language. Nobody knows where its origins are. Good question!
Can someone please explain tome how exactly "Indo European"languages are tied together?
So I've seen this term and read about it, but I haven't quite understood how Indo European languages are connected, and where they all came from? For example, I don't understand how the Armenian and German language can be in the same family.
Linguists noticed many similarities between Sanskrit(an ancient Indic language) and European languages (for ex. the sanskrit word RAJA is close to the latin word REX which became the italian RE) and this suggested a common historical parentage.So they proposed that many of the classical languages (latin, greek, sanskrit, gothic, celtic, persian) derive from the same source and they called this parent language Indo-European.All we know about Indo-European is based on conjectures, on common aspects found in modern-day languages and on tracing a hypothetical mother tongue called Proto-Indo European(which may never have existed). Two or more languages are in the same family because they have similar linguistic aspects (words, grammatical costructions, fonethics...)
How come Finish and Hungariannot Indo European?
Finland and Hungary are located in Europe and they are both members of European Union. Especially, Hungary is in the very center of Europe. Plus, the Finnish and Hungarian people totally look like Europeans(Caucasians, White or whatever you want to call them). How come their languages are not even Indo-European languages? Either geographically or ethnically, Finland and Hungary are closer to Europe than Persia or India. How is that possible?
Europe has not always been exclusively Aryan (or Indo-European ) territory. The Indo-Europeans were relative late commers to Europe, arriving about 4,000 B.C. from the Southeastern Ukraine. The original Ice Age population of Europe seems to have been mostly Finno-Ugrian from Moscow all the way to the British Isles. In other words. Finno-Ugrian hunter-gatherer boat peoples, In much of Southern Europe there were other Non-Indo-European peoples like the Basques, Etruscans and their relatives. Some linguists think that this group may be distantly related to the North Caucasian languages (Not to be confused with "Caucasian race") and to Sino-Tibetan group of languages all the way in China! The Greeks and Armenians seem to have intermarried with the Mongolods a long time ago even though they speak Indo-European languages. In fact, both peoples may have been originally Mongoloid and gradually became a little more Caucasoid like the Finns and the Hungarians. The original homeland of the Finno-Ugric peoples was in the Russian-Siberian border region. Their original language, Proto-Uralic, later split up into separate Finno-Ugrian, Lappic and Samoyedic groups. Some linguists believe that Korean and Japanese may be early offshoots of Proto-Uralic too but their speakers migrated eastward instead of westward. The Celts appear to have been the first Indo- Europeans to develop a close relationship with the Finno-Ugrian peoples. Cavalli-Sforza's genetic research reveals ancient links between the Scots (Celtic speaking) and Poles & Russians (Slavic speaking) and Hungarians (Finno-Ugrian speaking). There also appear to be genetic links between the Irish (Celtic speaking) and Finns (Finno-Ugric speaking) and Bulgarians (Slavic speaking, maybe originally Finnic speaking). So over the centuries, through a series of migrations and intermarriages, genes and languages have been jumbled up in Europe. You may also wish to see this article by Finnish scholar Andres Paabo about the original extent of Finno-Ugrian peoples and languages in ancient Europe before the Indo-European invasians squeezed them into present day Lappland and Finland. So far, it's officially just a theory. However, I believe there is a good deal of truth to it. http://www.paabo.ca/uirala/Fin noUgricbkgd.html There is also some evidence that the Bretons and Picts were originally Ugrian speakers from Russia (see Hungarian) who later became Celtic (Indo-European) speaking through their associations with the Celts.
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